scaled agile safe-devops practice test

Exam Title: SAFe DevOps Practitioner Exam SDP (6.0)

Last update: Nov 27 ,2025
Question 1

What is one reason for test data management?

  • A. To automate provisioning data to an application in order to set it to a known state before testing begins
  • B. To track the results of automated test cases for use by corporate audit
  • C. To provide a viable option for disaster-recovery management
  • D. To truncate data from the database to enable fast-forward recovery
Answer:

A


Explanation:
According to the SAFe DevOps Practitioner 6.0 study guide and handbook, test data management is
one reason for test data management. This means that test data management helps teams ensure
that the application under test has a consistent and reliable state, by automating the provisioning of
data from various sources and formats.
The handbook states that "Test data management is the
process of automating provisioning of data to an application in order to set it to a known state before
testing begins."1
Therefore, test data management enables teams to perform end-to-end testing
with confidence and accuracy.

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Question 2

Where do features go after Continuous Exploration?

  • A. Into Continuous Integration, where they are deployed with feature toggles
  • B. Into Continuous Development, where they are implemented in small batches
  • C. Into the Portfolio Backlog, where they are then prioritized
  • D. Into Continuous Integration, where they are then split into Stories
Answer:

D


Explanation:
In the Scaled Agile Framework (SAFe), after features are defined and designed during Continuous
Exploration, they move into Continuous Integration. Here, they are further broken down into
smaller, implementable parts known as user stories. These stories are then developed, tested, and
integrated into the existing codebase. This process ensures that new features are developed in a
systematic and efficient manner, with regular integration and testing to maintain quality and
readiness for release.

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Question 3

Which statement describes what could happen when development and operations do not
collaborate early in the pipeline?

  • A. Flow times are reduced
  • B. Teams build things quickly but build the wrong things
  • C. Surprises are found in deployment that lead to significant rework and delay
  • D. Automation of integration test is not possible
Answer:

C


Explanation:
According to the SAFe DevOps Practitioner 6.0 study guide and handbook, when development and
operations do not collaborate early in the pipeline, surprises are found in deployment that lead to
significant rework and delay. This means that the teams may not have a shared understanding of the
quality, performance, and security requirements of the Solution, and may encounter issues that were
not anticipated or tested.
The handbook states that "When development and operations do not
collaborate early in the pipeline, surprises are found in deployment that lead to significant rework
and delay."1
Therefore, it is important for teams to work together throughout the value stream to
ensure continuous delivery.

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Question 4

What does Value Stream Mapping help reveal in the Continuous Delivery Pipeline?

  • A. Who is responsible for optimizing the Value Stream
  • B. Where automation is needed
  • C. Bottlenecks to the flow of value
  • D. DevOps practices that will improve the Value Stream
Answer:

C


Explanation:
According to the SAFe DevOps Practitioner 6.0 study guide and handbook, Value Stream Mapping
helps reveal bottlenecks to the flow of value in the Continuous Delivery Pipeline. This means that
Value Stream Mapping helps teams identify and eliminate any activities or processes that slow down
or stop the delivery of value to customers.
The handbook states that "Value Stream Mapping helps
reveal bottlenecks to the flow of value in the Continuous Delivery Pipeline."1
Therefore, Value
Stream Mapping helps teams optimize their value stream and improve their delivery performance.

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Question 5

What is an element of CALMR?

  • A. Recovery
  • B. Application security
  • C. Compliance
  • D. Metrics
Answer:

A


Explanation:
According to the SAFe DevOps Practitioner 6.0 study guide and handbook, recovery is an element of
CALMR. This means that recovery is the ability to restore the Solution to a desired state after a failure
or incident.
The handbook states that "Recovery is the ability to restore the Solution to a desired
state after a failure or incident."1
Therefore, recovery is one of the key aspects of DevOps excellence
that enables continuous delivery.

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Question 6

What is one potential outcome of the Verify activity of the Continuous Delivery Pipeline?

  • A. Fix a broken build
  • B. Capture usage metrics from a canary release
  • C. Roll back a failed deployment
  • D. Analyze regression testing results
Answer:

D


Explanation:
According to the SAFe DevOps Practitioner 6.0 study guide and handbook, one potential outcome of
the Verify activity of the Continuous Delivery Pipeline is to analyze regression testing results. This
means that the Verify activity involves checking the functionality and performance of the Solution
after a deployment, and comparing it with the expected results.
The handbook states that "Verify is
the activity of checking the functionality and performance of the Solution after a deployment, and
comparing it with the expected results."1
Therefore, one of the possible outcomes of this activity is
to analyze how well the Solution meets the quality standards and customer requirements.

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Question 7

Which statement illustrates the biggest bottleneck?

  • A. WT = 5 days, AT = 2.5 days, %C&A = 100%
  • B. WT = 10 days, AT = 0.5 day, %C&A = 100%
  • C. WT = 1 day, AT = 0.5 day, %C&A = 90%
  • D. WT = 6 days, AT = 5 days, %C&A = 100%
Answer:

B


Explanation:
According to the SAFe DevOps Practitioner 6.0 study guide and handbook, the statement that
illustrates the biggest bottleneck is B. WT = 10 days, AT = 0.5 day, %C&A = 100%. This means that the
value stream has the longest lead time (WT), the shortest actual time (AT), and the highest relative
economic value (C&A). These are the three metrics that are used to measure and optimize the value
stream performance.
The handbook states that "The three metrics used to measure and optimize
value stream performance are WT, AT, and %C&A."1
Therefore, a bigger bottleneck indicates a lower
value stream efficiency and a higher waste or inefficiency.

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Question 8

The DevOps Health Radar aligns the four aspects of the Continuous Delivery Pipeline to which four
stakeholder concerns?

  • A. Portfolio, Solution, ART, team
  • B. Productivity, efficiency, speed-to-market, competitive advantage
  • C. Exploration, integration, development, reflection
  • D. Alignment, quality, time-to-market, business value
Answer:

D


Explanation:
The DevOps Health Radar aligns the four aspects of the Continuous Delivery Pipeline to four
stakeholder concerns: alignment, quality, time-to-market, and business value. The DevOps Health
Radar is a tool that helps Agile Release Trains (ARTs) and Solution Trains assess their ability to
Release on Demand, which is the process of delivering value to customers whenever there is a
business need. The DevOps Health Radar consists of four dimensions that correspond to the four
aspects of the Continuous Delivery Pipeline: Continuous Exploration (CE), Continuous Integration
(CI), Continuous Deployment (CD), and Release on Demand. Each dimension has four sub-
dimensions that reflect the key practices and capabilities that enable the flow of value. The DevOps
Health Radar helps the ARTs and Solution Trains to measure their maturity in each sub-dimension,
using a scale of Sit, Crawl, Walk, Run, or Fly. The DevOps Health Radar also helps the ARTs and
Solution Trains to identify the gaps and improvement opportunities in their DevOps practices, and to
prioritize the next steps toward achieving higher levels of maturity. The DevOps Health Radar aligns
the four aspects of the Continuous Delivery Pipeline to four stakeholder concerns, as shown in Figure
1:
Alignment – Alignment is the concern of ensuring that the solution is aligned with the customer
needs, market opportunities, and strategic goals of the enterprise. Alignment is achieved by applying
the CE aspect, which involves exploring the market and customer problems, defining a vision,
roadmap, and set of features for the solution, and validating the assumptions and hypotheses with
customer feedback and data.
Quality – Quality is the concern of ensuring that the solution meets the functional and nonfunctional
requirements and standards, and that it does not introduce any defects or vulnerabilities. Quality is
achieved by applying the CI aspect, which involves developing, testing, integrating, and validating
new functionality in preparation for deployment and release.
Time-to-market – Time-to-market is the concern of ensuring that the solution can be delivered and
deployed to the production environment as fast and as frequently as possible, without compromising
quality or security. Time-to-market is achieved by applying the CD aspect, which involves automating
and streamlining the deployment process, and ensuring the stability and reliability of the production
environment.
Business value – Business value is the concern of ensuring that the solution delivers the expected
outcomes and benefits to the customer and the enterprise, and that it can be adapted and improved
based on the changing needs and feedback.
Business value is achieved by applying the Release on
Demand aspect, which involves releasing new functionality to the customer incrementally or
immediately, based on the market demand, and measuring and learning from the results12
1: https://scaledagileframework.com/blog/assess-your-devops-health-with-the-safe-devops-radar/
: https://support.scaledagile.com/s/article/Exam-Study-Guide-SDP-6-0-SAFe-for-DevOps

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Question 9

Which metric reflects the quality of output at each step in the Value Stream?

  • A. Code quality
  • B. Active Time
  • C. Percent Complete and Accurate (%C&A)
  • D. Flow Efficiency
Answer:

C


Explanation:
According to the SAFe DevOps Practitioner 6.0 study guide and handbook, the metric that reflects the
quality of output at each step in the Value Stream is Percent Complete and Accurate (%C&A). This
metric measures the relative cost of delay divided by the relative job duration, which indicates how
efficiently the value stream delivers value to customers.
The handbook states that "Percent Complete
and Accurate (%C&A) is a metric that measures the relative cost of delay divided by the relative job
duration."1
Therefore, %C&A helps teams identify and eliminate any waste or inefficiencies in their
value stream.

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Question 10

Which practice helps developers deploy their code into production?

  • A. Deployment automation
  • B. Continuous Deployment
  • C. Infrastructure as code
  • D. Self-service deployment
Answer:

B


Explanation:
According to the SAFe DevOps Practitioner 6.0 study guide and handbook, Continuous Deployment
is a practice that helps developers deploy their code into production. This means that Continuous
Deployment involves moving changes from the staging environment to the production environment,
without requiring manual intervention or approval.
The handbook states that "Continuous
Deployment is the practice of moving changes from the staging environment to the production
environment, without requiring manual intervention or approval."1
Therefore, Continuous
Deployment enables teams to deliver value to customers faster and more reliably.

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