palo alto networks pccp practice test

Exam Title: Palo Alto Networks Cybersecurity Practitioner

Last update: Nov 27 ,2025
Question 1

What are two common lifecycle stages for an advanced persistent threat (APT) that is infiltrating a
network? (Choose two.)

  • A. Lateral movement
  • B. Communication with covert channels
  • C. Deletion of critical data
  • D. Privilege escalation
Answer:

A, D


Explanation:
Lateral movement is a key stage where the attacker moves across the network to find valuable
targets.
Privilege escalation involves gaining higher access rights to expand control within the compromised
environment.
Communication with covert channels is a tactic used during persistence or exfiltration, while deletion
of critical data is not a standard APT lifecycle stage — it’s more characteristic of destructive attacks.

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Question 2

A high-profile company executive receives an urgent email containing a malicious link. The sender
appears to be from the IT department of the company, and the email requests an update of the
executive's login credentials for a system update.
Which type of phishing attack does this represent?

  • A. Whaling
  • B. Vishing
  • C. Pharming
  • D. Angler phishing
Answer:

A


Explanation:
Whaling is a targeted phishing attack aimed at high-profile individuals, such as executives. The
attacker impersonates a trusted entity (e.g., IT department) to trick the executive into revealing
sensitive credentials. This is a form of spear phishing specifically focused on “big fish” targets.

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Question 3

Which next-generation firewall (NGFW) deployment option provides full application visibility into
Kubernetes environments?

  • A. Virtual
  • B. Container
  • C. Physical
  • D. SASE
Answer:

B


Explanation:
A container-based NGFW is specifically designed to integrate with Kubernetes environments,
providing full application visibility and control within containerized workloads. It operates at the pod
level, making it ideal for securing dynamic microservices architectures.

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Question 4

Which type of firewall should be implemented when a company headquarters is required to have
redundant power and high processing power?

  • A. Cloud
  • B. Physical
  • C. Virtual
  • D. Containerized
Answer:

B


Explanation:
A physical firewall is ideal for environments like a company headquarters that require redundant
power, high throughput, and dedicated hardware for maximum reliability and performance. It
supports more robust failover and scalability compared to virtual or containerized options.

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Question 5

Which statement describes the process of application allow listing?

  • A. It allows only trusted files, applications, and processes to run.
  • B. It creates a set of specific applications that do not run on the system.
  • C. It encrypts application data to protect the system from external threats.
  • D. It allows safe use of applications by scanning files for malware.
Answer:

A


Explanation:
Application allow listing is a security practice that permits only pre-approved (trusted) applications,
files, and processes to run on a system. This approach helps prevent unauthorized or malicious
software from executing, thereby reducing the attack surface.

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Question 6

Which component of the AAA framework verifies user identities so they may access the network?

  • A. Allowance
  • B. Authorization
  • C. Accounting
  • D. Authentication
Answer:

D


Explanation:
Authentication is the component of the AAA (Authentication, Authorization, and Accounting)
framework that verifies user identities (e.g., via passwords, certificates, or biometrics) before
granting access to network resources.

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Question 7

Which capability does Cloud Security Posture Management (CSPM) provide for threat detection
within Prisma Cloud?

  • A. Real-time protection from threats
  • B. Alerts for new code introduction
  • C. Integration with threat feeds
  • D. Continuous monitoring of resources
Answer:

D


Explanation:
Cloud Security Posture Management (CSPM), including Prisma Cloud’s offering, continuously
monitors all cloud resources — such as compute instances, storage, network configurations, and
identities — to detect misconfigurations, vulnerabilities, and potential threats in near real time.
Reference:
https://www.paloaltonetworks.com/prisma/cloud/cloud-security-posture-management

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Question 8

Which type of system collects data and uses correlation rules to trigger alarms?

  • A. SIM
  • B. SIEM
  • C. UEBA
  • D. SOAR
Answer:

B


Explanation:
A Security Information and Event Management (SIEM) system collects data from various sources
(logs, events, etc.) and uses correlation rules to analyze this data and trigger alarms when suspicious
or predefined patterns are detected.

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Question 9

What is the purpose of host-based architectures?

  • A. They share the work of both clients and servers.
  • B. They allow client computers to perform most of the work.
  • C. They divide responsibilities among clients.
  • D. They allow a server to perform all of the work virtually.
Answer:

D


Explanation:
In a host-based architecture, the server (host) handles all processing tasks, while the client mainly
provides input/output. This centralizes control, processing, and data storage on the server, reducing
the client’s role to that of a terminal.

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Question 10

What is the function of an endpoint detection and response (EDR) tool?

  • A. To provide organizations with expertise for monitoring network devices
  • B. To ingest alert data from network devices
  • C. To monitor activities and behaviors for investigation of security incidents on user devices
  • D. To integrate data from different products in order to provide a holistic view of security posture
Answer:

C


Explanation:
Endpoint Detection and Response (EDR) tools monitor, record, and analyze endpoint activity to
detect suspicious behavior, investigate incidents, and respond to threats on user devices such as
laptops and desktops.

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