After a Best Practice Assessment (BPA) is complete, it is determined that dynamic updates for Cloud-
Delivered Security Services (CDSS) used by company branch offices do not match recommendations.
The snippet used for dynamic updates is currently set to download and install updates weekly.
Knowing these devices have the Precision Al bundle, which two statements describe how the settings
need to be adjusted in the snippet? (Choose two.)
A C
Explanation:
A Best Practice Assessment (BPA) evaluates firewall configurations against Palo Alto Networks'
recommended best practices. In this case, the Cloud-Delivered Security Services (CDSS) update
settings do not align with best practices, as they are currently set to weekly updates, which delays
threat prevention.
Best Practices for Dynamic Updates in the Precision AI Bundle
Applications and Threats – Update Daily
Regular updates ensure the firewall detects and blocks the latest exploits, vulnerabilities, and
malware.
Weekly updates are too slow and leave the network vulnerable to newly discovered attacks.
WildFire – Update Every Five Minutes
WildFire is Palo Alto Networks' cloud-based malware analysis engine, which identifies and mitigates
new threats in near real-time.
Updating every five minutes ensures that newly discovered malware signatures are applied quickly.
A weekly update would significantly delay threat response.
Other Answer Choices Analysis
(B) Antivirus should be updated daily.
While frequent updates are recommended, Antivirus in Palo Alto firewalls is updated hourly by
default (not daily).
(D) URL Filtering should be updated hourly.
URL Filtering databases are updated dynamically in the cloud, and do not require fixed hourly
updates.
URL filtering effectiveness depends on cloud integration rather than frequent updates.
Reference and Justification:
Firewall Deployment – Ensuring dynamic updates align with best practices enhances security.
Security Policies – Applications, Threats, and WildFire updates are critical for enforcing protection
policies.
Threat Prevention & WildFire – Frequent updates reduce the window of exposure to new threats.
Panorama – Updates can be managed centrally for branch offices.
Zero Trust Architectures – Requires real-time threat intelligence updates.
Thus, Applications & Threats (A) should be updated daily, and WildFire (C) should be updated every
five minutes to maintain optimal security posture in accordance with BPA recommendations.
Which Panorama centralized management feature allows native and third-party integrations to
monitor VM-Series NGFW logs and objects?
A
Explanation:
In Panorama centralized management, Plugins enable native and third-party integrations to monitor
VM-Series NGFW logs and objects.
How Plugins Enable Integrations in Panorama
Native Integrations – Panorama plugins provide built-in support for cloud environments like AWS,
Azure, GCP, as well as VM-Series firewalls.
Third-Party Integrations – Plugins allow Panorama to send logs and security telemetry to third-party
systems like SIEMs, SOARs, and IT automation tools.
Log Monitoring & Object Management – Plugins help export logs, monitor firewall events, and
manage dynamic firewall configurations in cloud deployments.
Automation and API Support – Plugins extend Panorama’s capabilities by integrating with external
systems via APIs.
Why Other Options Are Incorrect?
❌
B . Template
Incorrect, because Templates are used for configuring firewall settings like network interfaces, not for
log monitoring or third-party integrations.
❌
C . Device Group
Incorrect, because Device Groups manage firewall policies and objects, but do not handle log
forwarding or third-party integrations.
❌
D . Log Forwarding Profile
Incorrect, because Log Forwarding Profiles define how logs are sent, but do not provide integration
capabilities with third-party tools.
Reference to Firewall Deployment and Security Features:
Firewall Deployment – Panorama uses plugins to integrate VM-Series NGFWs with cloud platforms.
Security Policies – Plugins support policy-based log forwarding and integration with external security
tools.
VPN Configurations – Cloud-based VPNs can be managed and monitored using plugins.
Threat Prevention – Plugins enable SIEM integration to monitor threat logs.
WildFire Integration – Some plugins support automated malware analysis and reporting.
Zero Trust Architectures – Supports log-based security analytics for Zero Trust enforcement.
Thus, the correct answer is:
✅
A. Plugin
Which two components of a Security policy, when configured, allow third-party contractors access to
internal applications outside business hours? (Choose two.)
AB
Explanation:
To allow third-party contractors access to internal applications outside business hours, the Security
Policy must include:
User-ID –
Identifies specific users (e.g., third-party contractors) and applies access rules accordingly.
Ensures that only authenticated users from the contractor group receive access.
Schedule –
Specifies the allowed access time frame (e.g., outside business hours: 6 PM - 6 AM).
Ensures that contractors can only access applications during designated off-hours.
Why Other Options Are Incorrect?
❌
C . Service
Incorrect, because Service defines ports and protocols, not user identity or time-based access
control.
❌
D . App-ID
Incorrect, because App-ID identifies and classifies applications, but does not restrict access based on
user identity or time.
Reference to Firewall Deployment and Security Features:
Firewall Deployment – Ensures contractors access internal applications securely via User-ID and
Schedule.
Security Policies – Implements granular time-based and identity-based access control.
VPN Configurations – Third-party contractors may access applications through GlobalProtect VPN.
Threat Prevention – Reduces attack risks by limiting access windows for third-party users.
WildFire Integration – Ensures downloaded contractor files are scanned for threats.
Zero Trust Architectures – Supports least-privilege access based on user identity and time
restrictions.
Thus, the correct answers are:
✅
A. User-ID
✅
B. Schedule
Which two policies in Strata Cloud Manager (SCM) will ensure the personal data of employees
remains private while enabling decryption for mobile users in Prisma Access? (Choose two.)
CD
Explanation:
In Strata Cloud Manager (SCM), policies need to balance privacy while ensuring secure decryption for
mobile users in Prisma Access. The correct approach involves:
SSL Forward Proxy (C) – Enables decryption of outbound SSL traffic, allowing security inspection
while ensuring unauthorized data does not leave the network.
No Decryption (D) – Excludes personal data from being decrypted, ensuring compliance with privacy
regulations (e.g., GDPR, HIPAA) and protecting sensitive employee information.
Why These Two Policies?
SSL Forward Proxy (C)
Decrypts outbound SSL traffic from mobile users.
Inspects traffic for malware, data exfiltration, and compliance violations.
Ensures corporate security policies are enforced on user traffic.
No Decryption (D)
Ensures privacy-sensitive traffic (e.g., online banking, healthcare portals) remains untouched.
Exclusions can be defined based on categories, user groups, or destinations.
Helps maintain regulatory compliance while still securing other traffic.
Other Answer Choices Analysis
(A) SSH Decryption – Not relevant in this context, as SSH traffic is typically used for administrative
access rather than mobile user web browsing.
(B) SSL Inbound Inspection – Used for inbound traffic to company-hosted servers, not for securing
outbound traffic from mobile users.
Reference and Justification:
Firewall Deployment – SSL Forward Proxy enables traffic visibility, No Decryption protects privacy.
Security Policies – Defines what traffic should or should not be decrypted.
Threat Prevention & WildFire – Decryption helps detect hidden threats while excluding sensitive
personal data.
Zero Trust Architectures – Ensures least-privilege access while maintaining privacy compliance.
Thus, SSL Forward Proxy (C) and No Decryption (D) are the correct answers, as they balance security
and privacy for mobile users in Prisma Access.
Which firewall attribute can an engineer use to simplify rule creation and automatically adapt to
changes in server roles or security posture based on log events?
A
Explanation:
A Dynamic Address Group (DAG) is a firewall feature that automatically updates firewall rules based
on changing attributes of devices, servers, or endpoints. This allows engineers to simplify rule
creation and ensure policies remain up-to-date without manual intervention.
Why Dynamic Address Groups?
Automatically Adapts to Changes
DAGs use log events, tags, and attributes to dynamically update firewall rules.
If a server role changes (e.g., a web server becomes an application server), it is automatically placed
in the correct security rule without requiring manual updates.
Simplifies Rule Creation
Instead of manually defining static IP addresses, engineers use logical groupings based on metadata,
such as VM tags, cloud attributes, or user roles.
Ensures policies remain accurate even when IP addresses or security postures change.
Other Answer Choices Analysis
(B) Dynamic User Groups – Controls policies based on user identity, not server roles or log-based
attributes.
(C) Predefined IP Addresses – Static and does not adapt to infrastructure changes.
(D) Address Objects – Manually defined and does not dynamically adjust based on log events or
security posture.
Reference and Justification:
Firewall Deployment – DAGs help dynamically assign security policies based on real-time data.
Security Policies – Automatically applies correct rules based on changing attributes.
Threat Prevention & WildFire – Ensures that compromised systems are automatically placed under
restrictive security policies.
Panorama – DAGs are managed centrally, ensuring uniform policy enforcement across multiple
firewalls.
Zero Trust Architectures – Dynamic adaptation ensures least-privilege access enforcement as
environments change.
Thus, Dynamic Address Groups (A) is the correct answer, as it simplifies rule creation and ensures
automatic adaptation to changes in server roles or security posture.
Which two tools can be used to configure Cloud NGFWs for AWS? (Choose two.)
BD
Explanation:
Cloud NGFW for AWS is a managed next-generation firewall service provided by Palo Alto Networks,
designed to secure AWS environments. It can be configured using two primary tools:
Cloud Service Provider's Management Console (AWS Console) –
AWS users can deploy and manage Cloud NGFW for AWS directly from the AWS Marketplace or AWS
Management Console.
The AWS console allows integration with AWS native services, such as VPCs, security groups, and
IAM policies.
Panorama –
Panorama provides centralized policy and configuration management for Cloud NGFW instances
deployed across AWS.
It enables consistent security policy enforcement, log aggregation, and seamless integration with on-
premises and multi-cloud firewalls.
Why Other Options Are Incorrect?
❌
A . Cortex XSIAM
Incorrect, because Cortex XSIAM is an AI-driven security operations platform, not a tool for Cloud
NGFW configuration.
It focuses on SOC automation, threat detection, and response rather than firewall policy
management.
❌
C . Prisma Cloud Management Console
Incorrect, because Prisma Cloud is designed for cloud security posture management (CSPM) and
compliance.
While Prisma Cloud monitors security risks in AWS, it does not configure or manage Cloud NGFW
policies.
Reference to Firewall Deployment and Security Features:
Firewall Deployment – Cloud NGFW integrates with AWS network architecture.
Security Policies – Panorama enforces security policies across AWS workloads.
VPN Configurations – Cloud NGFW supports AWS-based VPN traffic inspection.
Threat Prevention – Protects AWS workloads from malware, exploits, and network threats.
WildFire Integration – Detects unknown threats within AWS environments.
Zero Trust Architectures – Secures AWS cloud workloads using Zero Trust principles.
Thus, the correct answers are:
✅
B. Cloud service provider's management console
✅
D. Panorama
Which tool will help refine a security rule by specifying the applications it has viewed in past weeks?
D
Explanation:
The Policy Optimizer tool helps refine security rules by analyzing historical traffic data and identifying
the applications observed over past weeks. It is designed to:
Improve Security Policies – Identifies overly permissive rules and suggests specific application-based
security policies.
Enhance Rule Accuracy – Helps replace port-based rules with App-ID-based security rules, reducing
the risk of unintended access.
Use Historical Traffic Data – Analyzes past network activity to determine which applications should
be explicitly allowed or denied.
Simplify Rule Management – Reduces redundant or outdated policies, leading to more effective
firewall rule enforcement.
Why Other Options Are Incorrect?
❌
A . Security Lifecycle Review (SLR)
Incorrect, because SLR provides a high-level security assessment, not a tool for refining specific
security rules.
It focuses on identifying security gaps rather than optimizing security policies based on past traffic
data.
❌
B . Custom Reporting
Incorrect, because Custom Reporting generates security insights and compliance reports, but does
not analyze policy rules.
❌
C . Autonomous Digital Experience Management (ADEM)
Incorrect, because ADEM is designed for network performance monitoring, not firewall rule
refinement.
It helps measure end-user digital experiences rather than security policy optimizations.
Reference to Firewall Deployment and Security Features:
Firewall Deployment – Policy Optimizer improves firewall efficiency and accuracy.
Security Policies – Refines rules based on actual observed application traffic.
VPN Configurations – Helps optimize security policies for VPN traffic.
Threat Prevention – Ensures that unused or unnecessary policies do not create security risks.
WildFire Integration – Works alongside WildFire threat detection to fine-tune application security
rules.
Zero Trust Architectures – Supports least-privilege access control by defining specific App-ID-based
rules.
Thus, the correct answer is:
✅
D. Policy Optimizer
An administrator has imported a pair of firewalls to Panorama under the same template stack. As a
part of the template stack, the administrator wants to create a high availability (HA) template to be
shared by the firewalls.
Which dynamic component should the administrator use when setting the Peer HA1 IP address?
B
Explanation:
When configuring High Availability (HA) settings in Panorama, administrators need to ensure that
each firewall in the HA pair has a unique Peer HA1 IP address while using a shared template stack.
This is achieved using Template Variables, which allow dynamic configurations per firewall.
Why Template Variable is the Correct Answer?
Ensures Unique HA1 IP Addresses
HA pairs require two separate HA1 IP addresses (one per firewall).
Using template variables, the administrator can assign different values to each firewall without
creating separate templates.
Template Variables Provide Flexibility
Instead of hardcoding HA1 IP addresses in the template, variables allow different firewalls to
dynamically inherit unique values.
This avoids duplication and ensures configuration scalability when managing multiple firewalls.
Other Answer Choices Analysis
(A) Template Stack – Defines the overall configuration hierarchy but does not provide dynamic IP
assignment.
(C) Address Object – Used for security policies and NAT rules, not for HA configurations.
(D) Dynamic Address Group – Primarily used for automated security policies, not HA settings.
Reference and Justification:
Firewall Deployment – HA configurations require unique peer IPs, and template variables provide
dynamic assignment.
Panorama – Template variables enhance scalability and simplify HA configurations across multiple
devices.
Thus, Template Variable (B) is the correct answer, as it allows dynamic peer HA1 IP assignment while
using a shared template stack in Panorama.
At a minimum, which action must be taken to ensure traffic coming from outside an organization to
the DMZ can access the DMZ zone for a company using private IP address space?
C
Explanation:
When setting up NAT for inbound traffic to a DMZ using private IP addressing, the correct approach is
to configure NAT policies on:
Pre-NAT addresses – Refers to the public IP address that external users access.
Post-NAT zone – Refers to the internal (DMZ) zone where the private IP resides.
This ensures that inbound requests are translated correctly from public to private addresses and that
firewall policies can enforce access control.
Why is Pre-NAT Address & Post-NAT Zone the Correct Choice?
NAT Rules Must Use Pre-NAT Addresses
The firewall processes NAT rules first, meaning firewall security policies reference pre-NAT IPs.
This ensures incoming traffic is properly matched before translation.
Post-NAT Zone Ensures Correct Forwarding
The destination zone must match the actual (post-NAT) zone to allow correct security policy
enforcement.
Other Answer Choices Analysis
(A) Configure Static NAT for All Incoming Traffic –
Static NAT alone does not ensure correct security policy enforcement.
Pre-NAT and post-NAT rules are still required for proper traffic flow.
(B) Create NAT Policies on Post-NAT Addresses for All Traffic Destined for DMZ –
Incorrect, as NAT policies are always based on pre-NAT addresses.
(D) Create Policies Only for Pre-NAT Addresses and Any Destination Zone –
Firewall rules must match the correct post-NAT zone to ensure proper traffic handling.
Reference and Justification:
Firewall Deployment – Ensures correct NAT configuration for public-to-private access.
Security Policies – Policies must match pre-NAT IPs and post-NAT zones for proper enforcement.
Thus, Configuring NAT policies on Pre-NAT addresses and Post-NAT zone (C) is the correct answer, as
it ensures proper NAT and security policy enforcement.
In which mode should an ION device be configured at a newly acquired site to allow site traffic to be
audited without steering traffic?
D
Explanation:
An ION device (used in Prisma SD-WAN) must be configured in Analytics mode at a newly acquired
site to audit traffic without steering it. This mode allows administrators to monitor network behavior
without actively modifying traffic paths.
Why Analytics Mode is the Correct Choice?
Passively Observes Traffic
The ION device monitors and logs site traffic for analysis.
No active control over routing or traffic flow is applied.
Useful for Network Auditing Before Full Deployment
Analytics mode provides visibility into site traffic before committing to SD-WAN policy changes.
Helps identify optimization opportunities and troubleshoot connectivity before enabling traffic
steering.
Other Answer Choices Analysis
(A) Access Mode – Enables active routing and steering of traffic, which is not desired for passive
auditing.
(B) Control Mode – Actively controls traffic flows and enforces policies, not suitable for observation-
only setups.
(C) Disabled Mode – The device would not function in this mode, making it useless for traffic
monitoring.
Reference and Justification:
Firewall Deployment – Prisma SD-WAN ION devices must be placed in Analytics mode for initial
audits.
Zero Trust Architectures – Helps assess security risks before enabling active controls.
Thus, Analytics Mode (D) is the correct answer, as it allows auditing of site traffic without traffic
steering.