ISC csslp practice test

Exam Title: Certified Secure Software Lifecycle Professional

Last update: Dec 16 ,2025
Question 1

Which of the following models uses a directed graph to specify the rights that a subject can transfer
to an object or that a subject can take from another subject?

  • A. Take-Grant Protection Model
  • B. Biba Integrity Model
  • C. Bell-LaPadula Model
  • D. Access Matrix
Answer:

A


Explanation:
The take-grant protection model is a formal model used in the field of computer security to establish
or disprove the safety of a given
computer system that follows specific rules. It shows that for specific systems the question of safety
is decidable in linear time, which is in
general undecidable.
The model represents a system as directed graph, where vertices are either subjects or objects. The
edges between them are labeled and
the label indicates the rights that the source of the edge has over the destination. Two rights occur in
every instance of the model: take and
grant. They play a special role in the graph rewriting rules describing admissible changes of the
graph.
Answer D is incorrect. The access matrix is a straightforward approach that provides access rights to
subjects for objects.
Answer C is incorrect. The Bell-LaPadula model deals only with the confidentiality of classified
material. It does not address integrity or
availability.
Answer B is incorrect. The integrity model was developed as an analog to the Bell-LaPadula
confidentiality model and then became
more sophisticated to address additional integrity requirements.

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Question 2

You are the project manager for GHY Project and are working to create a risk response for a negative
risk. You and the project team have identified the risk that the project may not complete on time, as
required by the management, due to the creation of the user guide for the software you're creating.
You have elected to hire an external writer in order to satisfy the requirements and to alleviate the
risk event. What type of risk response have you elected to use in this instance?

  • A. Transference
  • B. Exploiting
  • C. Avoidance
  • D. Sharing
Answer:

A


Explanation:
This is an example of transference as you have transferred the risk to a third party. Transference
almost always is done with a negative risk event and it usually requires a contractual relationship.

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Question 3

Which of the following organizations assists the President in overseeing the preparation of the
federal budget and to supervise its
administration in Executive Branch agencies?

  • A. OMB
  • B. NIST
  • C. NSA/CSS
  • D. DCAA
Answer:

A


Explanation:
The Office of Management and Budget (OMB) is a Cabinet-level office, and is the largest office within
the Executive Office of the President
(EOP) of the United States. The current OMB Director is Peter Orszag and was appointed by President
Barack Obama.
The OMB's predominant mission is to assist the President in overseeing the preparation of the
federal budget and to supervise its
administration in Executive Branch agencies. In helping to formulate the President's spending plans,
the OMB evaluates the effectiveness of
agency programs, policies, and procedures, assesses competing funding demands among agencies,
and sets funding priorities. The OMB
ensures that agency reports, rules, testimony, and proposed legislation are consistent with the
President's Budget and with Administration
policies.
Answer D is incorrect. The DCAA has the aim to monitor contractor costs and perform contractor
audits.
Answer C is incorrect. The National Security Agency/Central Security Service (NSA/CSS) is a crypto-
logic intelligence agency of the
United States government. It is administered as part of the United States Department of Defense.
NSA is responsible for the collection and
analysis of foreign communications and foreign signals intelligence, which involves cryptanalysis.
NSA is also responsible for protecting U.S. government communications and information systems
from similar agencies elsewhere, which
involves cryptography. NSA is a key component of the U.S. Intelligence Community, which is headed
by the Director of National Intelligence.
The Central Security Service is a co-located agency created to coordinate intelligence activities and
co-operation between NSA and U.S.
military cryptanalysis agencies. NSA's work is limited to communications intelligence. It does not
perform field or human intelligence activities.
Answer B is incorrect. The National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST), known between
1901 and 1988 as the National
Bureau of Standards (NBS), is a measurement standards laboratory which is a non-regulatory agency
of the United States Department of
Commerce. The institute's official mission is to promote U.S. innovation and industrial
competitiveness by advancing measurement science,
standards, and technology in ways that enhance economic security and improve quality of life.

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Question 4

Part of your change management plan details what should happen in the change control system for
your project. Theresa, a junior project
manager, asks what the configuration management activities are for scope changes. You tell her that
all of the following are valid
configuration management activities except for which one?

  • A. Configuration Identification
  • B. Configuration Verification and Auditing
  • C. Configuration Status Accounting
  • D. Configuration Item Costing
Answer:

D


Explanation:
Configuration item cost is not a valid activity for configuration management. Cost changes are
managed by the cost change control system;
configuration management is concerned with changes to the features and functions of the project
deliverables.

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Question 5

Which of the following types of redundancy prevents attacks in which an attacker can get physical
control of a machine, insert unauthorized software, and alter data?

  • A. Data redundancy
  • B. Hardware redundancy
  • C. Process redundancy
  • D. Application redundancy
Answer:

C


Explanation:
Process redundancy permits software to run simultaneously on multiple geographically distributed
locations, with voting on results. It
prevents attacks in which an attacker can get physical control of a machine, insert unauthorized
software, and alter data.

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Question 6

Which of the following individuals inspects whether the security policies, standards, guidelines, and
procedures are efficiently performed in accordance with the company's stated security objectives?

  • A. Information system security professional
  • B. Data owner
  • C. Senior management
  • D. Information system auditor
Answer:

D


Explanation:
An information system auditor is an individual who inspects whether the security policies, standards,
guidelines, and procedures are efficiently
performed in accordance with the company's stated security objectives. He is responsible for
reporting the senior management about the
value of security controls by performing regular and independent audits.
Answer B is incorrect. A data owner determines the sensitivity or classification levels of data.
Answer A is incorrect. An informational systems security professional is an individual who designs,
implements, manages, and reviews
the security policies, standards, guidelines, and procedures of the organization. He is responsible to
implement and maintain security by the
senior-level management.
Answer C is incorrect. A senior management assigns overall responsibilities to other individuals.

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Question 7

Which of the following process areas does the SSE-CMM define in the 'Project and Organizational
Practices' category? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.

  • A. Provide Ongoing Skills and Knowledge
  • B. Verify and Validate Security
  • C. Manage Project Risk
  • D. Improve Organization's System Engineering Process
Answer:

C, D, A


Explanation:
Project and Organizational Practices include the following process areas:
PA12: Ensure Quality
PA13: Manage Configuration
PA14: Manage Project Risk
PA15: Monitor and Control Technical Effort
PA16: Plan Technical Effort
PA17: Define Organization's System Engineering Process
PA18: Improve Organization's System Engineering Process
PA19: Manage Product Line Evolution
PA20: Manage Systems Engineering Support Environment
PA21: Provide Ongoing Skills and Knowledge
PA22: Coordinate with Suppliers

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Question 8

The LeGrand Vulnerability-Oriented Risk Management method is based on vulnerability analysis and
consists of four principle steps. Which of the following processes does the risk assessment step
include?
Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. Choose all that apply.

  • A. Remediation of a particular vulnerability
  • B. Cost-benefit examination of countermeasures
  • C. Identification of vulnerabilities
  • D. Assessment of attacks
Answer:

C, B, D


Explanation:
Risk assessment includes identification of vulnerabilities, assessment of losses caused by threats
materialized, cost-benefit examination of countermeasures, and assessment of attacks.
Answer A is incorrect. This process is included in the vulnerability management.

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Question 9

You work as a Security Manager for Tech Perfect Inc. You have set up a SIEM server for the following
purposes: Analyze the data from different log sources Correlate the events among the log entries
Identify and prioritize significant events Initiate responses to events if required One of your log
monitoring staff wants to know the features of SIEM product that will help them in these purposes.
What features will you recommend?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.

  • A. Asset information storage and correlation
  • B. Transmission confidentiality protection
  • C. Incident tracking and reporting
  • D. Security knowledge base
  • E. Graphical user interface
Answer:

E, D, C, A


Explanation:
The features of SIEM products are as follows:
Graphical user interface (GUI): It is used in analysis for identifying potential problems and reviewing
all available data that are
associated with the problems.
Security knowledge base: It includes information on known vulnerabilities, log messages, and other
technical data.
Incident tracking and hacking: It has robust workflow features to track and report incidents.
Asset information storage and correlation: It gives higher priority to an attack that affects a
vulnerable OS or a main host.
Answer B is incorrect. SIEM product does not have this feature.

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Question 10

According to U.S. Department of Defense (DoD) Instruction 8500.2, there are eight Information
Assurance (IA) areas, and the controls are referred to as IA controls. Which of the following are
among the eight areas of IA defined by DoD? Each correct answer represents a complete solution.
Choose all that apply.

  • A. VI Vulnerability and Incident Management
  • B. Information systems acquisition, development, and maintenance
  • C. DC Security Design & Configuration
  • D. EC Enclave and Computing Environment
Answer:

C, A, D


Explanation:
According to U.S. Department of Defense (DoD) Instruction 8500.2, there are eight Information
Assurance (IA) areas, and the controls are
referred to as IA controls. Following are the various U.S. Department of Defense information security
standards:
DC Security Design & Configuration
IA Identification and Authentication
EC Enclave and Computing Environment
EB Enclave Boundary Defense
PE Physical and Environmental
PR Personnel
CO Continuity
VI Vulnerability and Incident Management
Answer B is incorrect. Business continuity management is an International information security
standard.

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