CheckPoint 156-215-81 practice test

Exam Title: Check Point Certified Security Administrator R81.20

Last update: Nov 27 ,2025
Question 1

Due to high CPU workload on the Security Gateway, the security administrator decided to purchase a
new multicore CPU to replace the existing single core CPU. After installation, is the administrator
required to perform any additional tasks?

  • A. Go to clash-Run cpstop | Run cpstart
  • B. Go to clash-Run cpconfig | Configure CoreXL to make use of the additional Cores | Exit cpconfig | Reboot Security Gateway
  • C. Administrator does not need to perform any task. Check Point will make use of the newly installed CPU and Cores
  • D. Go to clash-Run cpconfig | Configure CoreXL to make use of the additional Cores | Exit cpconfig | Reboot Security Gateway | Install Security Policy
Answer:

B


Explanation:
The correct answer is B because after installing a new multicore CPU, the administrator needs to
configure CoreXL to make use of the additional cores and reboot the Security Gateway.
Installing the
Security Policy is not necessary because it does not affect the CoreXL configuration1
.
Reference:
Check Point R81 Security Management Administration Guide

vote your answer:
A
B
C
D
A 0 B 0 C 0 D 0
Comments
Question 2

When installing a dedicated R80 SmartEvent server, what is the recommended size of the root
partition?

  • A. Any size
  • B. Less than 20GB
  • C. More than 10GB and less than 20 GB
  • D. At least 20GB
Answer:

D


Explanation:
The correct answer is D because the recommended size of the root partition for a dedicated R80
SmartEvent server is at least 20GB2
. Any size, less than 20GB, or more than 10GB and less than 20GB
are not sufficient for the SmartEvent server. Reference:
Check Point R80.40 Installation and Upgrade
Guide

vote your answer:
A
B
C
D
A 0 B 0 C 0 D 0
Comments
Question 3

Which firewall daemon is responsible for the FW CLI commands?

  • A. fwd
  • B. fwm
  • C. cpm
  • D. cpd
Answer:

A


Explanation:
The correct answer is A because the fwd daemon is responsible for the FW CLI commands3
. The fwm
daemon handles the communication between the Security Management server and the GUI clients.
The cpm daemon handles the communication between the Security Management server and
SmartConsole. The cpd daemon monitors the status of critical processes on the Security Gateway.
Reference:
Check Point Firewall Processes and Daemons

vote your answer:
A
B
C
D
A 0 B 0 C 0 D 0
Comments
Question 4

If the Active Security Management Server fails or if it becomes necessary to change the Active to
Standby, the following steps must be taken to prevent data loss. Providing the Active Security
Management Server is responsible, which of these steps should NOT be performed:

  • A. Rename the hostname of the Standby member to match exactly the hostname of the Active member.
  • B. Change the Standby Security Management Server to Active.
  • C. Change the Active Security Management Server to Standby.
  • D. Manually synchronize the Active and Standby Security Management Servers.
Answer:

A


Explanation:
The correct answer is A because renaming the hostname of the Standby member to match exactly
the hostname of the Active member is not a recommended step to prevent data loss.
The hostname
of the Standby member should be different from the hostname of the Active member1
.
The other
steps are necessary to ensure a smooth failover and synchronization between the Active and Standby
Security Management Servers2
. Reference:
Check Point R81.20 Administration Guide
,
156-315.81
Checkpoint Exam Info and Free Practice Test

vote your answer:
A
B
C
D
A 0 B 0 C 0 D 0
Comments
Question 5

Using R80 Smart Console, what does a “pencil icon” in a rule mean?

  • A. I have changed this rule
  • B. Someone else has changed this rule
  • C. This rule is managed by check point’s SOC
  • D. This rule can’t be changed as it’s an implied rule
Answer:

A


Explanation:
The correct answer is A because a pencil icon in a rule means that you have changed this rule3
. The
pencil icon indicates that the rule has been modified but not published yet.
You can hover over the
pencil icon to see who made the change and when3
. The other options are not related to the pencil
icon. Reference:
Check Point Learning and Training Frequently Asked Questions (FAQs)

vote your answer:
A
B
C
D
A 0 B 0 C 0 D 0
Comments
Question 6

Which method below is NOT one of the ways to communicate using the Management API’s?

  • A. Typing API commands using the “mgmt_cli” command
  • B. Typing API commands from a dialog box inside the SmartConsole GUI application
  • C. Typing API commands using Gaia’s secure shell (clash)19+
  • D. Sending API commands over an http connection using web-services
Answer:

D


Explanation:
The correct answer is D because sending API commands over an http connection using web-services
is not one of the ways to communicate using the Management API’s3
.
The Management API’s
support HTTPS protocol only, not HTTP3
.
The other methods are valid ways to communicate using
the Management API’s3
. Reference:
Check Point Learning and Training Frequently Asked Questions
(FAQs)

vote your answer:
A
B
C
D
A 0 B 0 C 0 D 0
Comments
Question 7

Session unique identifiers are passed to the web api using which http header option?

  • A. X-chkp-sid
  • B. Accept-Charset
  • C. Proxy-Authorization
  • D. Application
Answer:

A


Explanation:
The correct answer is A because session unique identifiers are passed to the web api using the X-
chkp-sid http header option1
.
The X-chkp-sid header is used to authenticate and authorize API calls1
.
The other options are not related to session unique identifiers. Reference:
Check Point R81 Security
Management Administration Guide

vote your answer:
A
B
C
D
A 0 B 0 C 0 D 0
Comments
Question 8

What is the main difference between Threat Extraction and Threat Emulation?

  • A. Threat Emulation never delivers a file and takes more than 3 minutes to complete
  • B. Threat Extraction always delivers a file and takes less than a second to complete
  • C. Threat Emulation never delivers a file that takes less than a second to complete
  • D. Threat Extraction never delivers a file and takes more than 3 minutes to complete
Answer:

B


Explanation:
The correct answer is B because Threat Extraction always delivers a file and takes less than a second
to complete2
.
Threat Extraction removes exploitable content from files and delivers a clean and safe
file to the user2
.
Threat Emulation analyzes files in a sandbox environment and delivers a verdict of
malicious or benign2
.
Threat Emulation can take more than 3 minutes to complete depending on the
file size and complexity2
. Reference:
Check Point R81 Threat Prevention Administration Guide

vote your answer:
A
B
C
D
A 0 B 0 C 0 D 0
Comments
Question 9

Which one of these features is NOT associated with the Check Point URL Filtering and Application
Control Blade?

  • A. Detects and blocks malware by correlating multiple detection engines before users are affected.
  • B. Configure rules to limit the available network bandwidth for specified users or groups.
  • C. Use UserCheck to help users understand that certain websites are against the company’s security policy.
  • D. Make rules to allow or block applications and Internet sites for individual applications, categories, and risk levels.
Answer:

A


Explanation:
The correct answer is A because detecting and blocking malware by correlating multiple detection
engines before users are affected is not a feature of the Check Point URL Filtering and Application
Control Blade3
.
This feature is part of the Check Point Anti-Virus and Anti-Bot Blades3
.
The other
options are features of the Check Point URL Filtering and Application Control Blade3
.
Reference:
Check Point R81 URL Filtering and Application Control Administration Guide

vote your answer:
A
B
C
D
A 0 B 0 C 0 D 0
Comments
Question 10

You want to store the GAiA configuration in a file for later reference. What command should you use?

  • A. write mem <filename>
  • B. show config -f <filename>
  • C. save config -o <filename>
  • D. save configuration <filename>
Answer:

D


Explanation:
The correct answer is D because the command save configuration <filename> stores the Gaia
configuration in a file for later reference1
.
The other commands are not valid in Gaia Clish1
.
Reference:
Gaia R81.10 Administration Guide

vote your answer:
A
B
C
D
A 0 B 0 C 0 D 0
Comments
Page 1 out of 41
Viewing questions 1-10 out of 411
Go To
page 2